AskSatanOperator
Well-known member
According to the Mainstream,
Alexander the Great and his Army engaged in race-mixing with the locals all the way up to India.
Is this true or an exaggeration? And if so, why did they do it? Isn't it a low-level practice?
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I see this notion being used by Greeks for example, consciously/unconsciously to justify race-mixing.
„If our national Hero did that, i can do that too!“ something like that.
And i am sure the Jews love to jump on that bandwagon and exploit it.
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Also i believe he was too soft on the Jews, he should have dealt with them quickly like he did with others.
Alexander the Great and his Army engaged in race-mixing with the locals all the way up to India.
Is this true or an exaggeration? And if so, why did they do it? Isn't it a low-level practice?
-
I see this notion being used by Greeks for example, consciously/unconsciously to justify race-mixing.
„If our national Hero did that, i can do that too!“ something like that.
And i am sure the Jews love to jump on that bandwagon and exploit it.
-
Also i believe he was too soft on the Jews, he should have dealt with them quickly like he did with others.