AskSatanOperator
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What is the meaning of adultery in ancient pagan scriptures (for example mentioned in 42 laws of Ma'at)? Is sexuality also condemned in paganism?
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Question #979: Meaning of adultery
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Karnonnos [JG]
Joy of Satan Guardian
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The Jews and those influenced by them cannot speak Ancient Egyptian and have hebraicized many of the translations of anything in the language to sound like the bible. Egyptologists are also obsessed with equating Egyptian morality with jewish 'morality' and claim all Egyptians were circumcised. The 42 Laws of Ma'at by Budge is translated to sound almost exactly like the bible.
The word "sin" (supposed to be a translation of isfaet) is inserted EVERYWHERE in Ancient Egyptian translations. What this word actually means is similar to 'chaos' or 'disunity', or 'to do wrong by something'. The context of 'I have wronged [a God/Demon]' and 'I have sinned against [God]' are VERY different for anyone whose brain has been primed by xianity. The second makes people think of being sent to hell and burning forever, which is falsely equated with Ammit.
The word for any kind of sex (nek) in Ancient Egyptian was the same, including rape and adulterous behavior. It was only translated as 'adultery' because the translator was Edwardian (bear in mind, censorship prevailed back then, even writing the word 'sex' could get a book banned for obscenity) and thought it matched.
Even with the Rosetta Stone, a lot of things in xianized Coptic mean different things in Ancient Egyptian too.
Considering the '42 Laws' or '42 Negative Confessions' in context deal with Astral projection and death, cross referencing specific Gods with each verse there is a high likelihood these were meant to be a mnemonic or some kind of spiritual instruction using certain themes or common moral maxims. The 42 is also a number copiously stolen by jews.
This also goes for Sumerian and Akkadian, where they made things like the Hymn of Inanna to Dumuzid lousy and jews even translated it in a cheap pornographic manner without understanding what the sexual theme is is conveying.
The word "sin" (supposed to be a translation of isfaet) is inserted EVERYWHERE in Ancient Egyptian translations. What this word actually means is similar to 'chaos' or 'disunity', or 'to do wrong by something'. The context of 'I have wronged [a God/Demon]' and 'I have sinned against [God]' are VERY different for anyone whose brain has been primed by xianity. The second makes people think of being sent to hell and burning forever, which is falsely equated with Ammit.
The word for any kind of sex (nek) in Ancient Egyptian was the same, including rape and adulterous behavior. It was only translated as 'adultery' because the translator was Edwardian (bear in mind, censorship prevailed back then, even writing the word 'sex' could get a book banned for obscenity) and thought it matched.
Even with the Rosetta Stone, a lot of things in xianized Coptic mean different things in Ancient Egyptian too.
Considering the '42 Laws' or '42 Negative Confessions' in context deal with Astral projection and death, cross referencing specific Gods with each verse there is a high likelihood these were meant to be a mnemonic or some kind of spiritual instruction using certain themes or common moral maxims. The 42 is also a number copiously stolen by jews.
This also goes for Sumerian and Akkadian, where they made things like the Hymn of Inanna to Dumuzid lousy and jews even translated it in a cheap pornographic manner without understanding what the sexual theme is is conveying.
HPS Lydia
High Priestess
Excellent reply
And it is so true how the Ancients viewed chaos and disunity to be sin, as it impedes and even reverses advancement. But we need to view it in the correct term (as you well described), and not as xians.Similar threads
