AsraArdwulfLeberecht
Active member
Greetings! I have heard about the Nuremberg Laws, which basically show no excuse for 1/4, 1/8, 1/16 jews etc which is absolutely correct, because x percent jew still equals "jew". I have a question though. Since jews infiltrated all Gentile communities, is it possible for people today to be: 1/32 jewish, or 1/64, even 1/128? Then these, are they still jews?
Isn't it inevitable for a given person to have in their DNA, a small percent of such blood even if they're not part of a rabbinical family or not even a traditional family, let alone a famous jewish bloodline, and they're not practitioners, since one of their great-great-great-great-great-etc ancestor, whom they don't even know, was an infiltrator, or a hybrid, or 1/8 himself? I say inevitable because (I may be wrong) jews infiltrated everywhere, and once a jew is in a bloodline (fully Gentile except him. Now let's assume the ideal case, in which no other full-blooded jew mixes with anyone from this bloodline), then are all the descendants of this bloodline doomed and jewish?
For example, let's take the rule of 1/4. What if one of their grandparents wasn't a jew, but was him/hersel an 1/4? Does that still make the grandchild jewish? And if that grandchild procreates with a Gentile, is the child (or great-grandchild ) jewish? Or if that great-great-etc was not a jew, but 1/8 for example, doesn't the blood dissipate, especially the more generations pass between the infected and the given person?
I'm no expert in DNA so please clear this out . As someone can be a mix between a White and a Black, and they have let's say 80% of their DNA with White characteristics , but it happens that their skin is of darker colour, that doesn't make them Black - Is it possible for a Gentile person to have small amount of jewish DNA, and the 80% to be Black or whatever, Gentile in essence, and thus to be Gentile?
Or are we lucky people, whose bloodlines, for more than 2000 years, have never seen 1 jew, 1 hybrid, 1 1/4 or anything related? :lol:
I figured this can easily be seen at the soul. Bodies vary through lifetimes but the Soul remains the same, with its species and Race. Now, if someone has 7 Chakras (jews have 4 according to a post by HPHC), and one of their ancestors was 1/4 jewish or something, since they indeed do have a Gentile soul, that makes them Gentile doesn't it? With mind and heart included. And as thus Race, because, if the soul was Gentile, then the potential jewish blood would not be as much as to dictate Race (otherwise a jewish soul would have been present). Because a Gentile soul wouldn't come in a jewish body (Exception for lavey) and the other way around.
It intrigues me, because if jews did indeed infiltrate in almost every bloodline, it is extremely likely that every single person is jewish in very small percent like 1/64 , or has a jewish ancestor, and if from there on, the whole bloodline is to be considered rotten (regardless of how many or few such other individuals mixed), then how many of people are actually Gentiles on this planet? It would mean that in the whole bloodline only jewish souls are incarnated and I don't want to believe this.
I didn't think it would be so complicated to articulate some thoughts
Isn't it inevitable for a given person to have in their DNA, a small percent of such blood even if they're not part of a rabbinical family or not even a traditional family, let alone a famous jewish bloodline, and they're not practitioners, since one of their great-great-great-great-great-etc ancestor, whom they don't even know, was an infiltrator, or a hybrid, or 1/8 himself? I say inevitable because (I may be wrong) jews infiltrated everywhere, and once a jew is in a bloodline (fully Gentile except him. Now let's assume the ideal case, in which no other full-blooded jew mixes with anyone from this bloodline), then are all the descendants of this bloodline doomed and jewish?
For example, let's take the rule of 1/4. What if one of their grandparents wasn't a jew, but was him/hersel an 1/4? Does that still make the grandchild jewish? And if that grandchild procreates with a Gentile, is the child (or great-grandchild ) jewish? Or if that great-great-etc was not a jew, but 1/8 for example, doesn't the blood dissipate, especially the more generations pass between the infected and the given person?
I'm no expert in DNA so please clear this out . As someone can be a mix between a White and a Black, and they have let's say 80% of their DNA with White characteristics , but it happens that their skin is of darker colour, that doesn't make them Black - Is it possible for a Gentile person to have small amount of jewish DNA, and the 80% to be Black or whatever, Gentile in essence, and thus to be Gentile?
Or are we lucky people, whose bloodlines, for more than 2000 years, have never seen 1 jew, 1 hybrid, 1 1/4 or anything related? :lol:
I figured this can easily be seen at the soul. Bodies vary through lifetimes but the Soul remains the same, with its species and Race. Now, if someone has 7 Chakras (jews have 4 according to a post by HPHC), and one of their ancestors was 1/4 jewish or something, since they indeed do have a Gentile soul, that makes them Gentile doesn't it? With mind and heart included. And as thus Race, because, if the soul was Gentile, then the potential jewish blood would not be as much as to dictate Race (otherwise a jewish soul would have been present). Because a Gentile soul wouldn't come in a jewish body (Exception for lavey) and the other way around.
It intrigues me, because if jews did indeed infiltrate in almost every bloodline, it is extremely likely that every single person is jewish in very small percent like 1/64 , or has a jewish ancestor, and if from there on, the whole bloodline is to be considered rotten (regardless of how many or few such other individuals mixed), then how many of people are actually Gentiles on this planet? It would mean that in the whole bloodline only jewish souls are incarnated and I don't want to believe this.
I didn't think it would be so complicated to articulate some thoughts