AskSatanOperator
Well-known member
Perhaps I misread what Satan said in The Al Jilwah, but the implication is that it was He who gave the jews all the power and wealth, although they oppose Him, because He says all wealth is in His hands, but He only gives them to the worthy. If that's the case, why would Satan give the wealth of the world to the jews if they oppose him?
"I reveal my wonders to those who seek them, and in due time my miracles to those who receive them from me. But those who are without are my adversaries, hence they oppose me. Nor do they know that such a course is against their own interests, for might, wealth and riches are in my hands, and I bestow them upon every worthy descendant of Adam. Thus the government of the worlds, the transition of generations, and the changes of their directors are determined by me from the beginning. "
Why would he give all the wealth and might of the world to his staunchest opponents?
He also says the books in the Bible were written by the biblical prophets and apostles but got corrupted by Christians and jews? This is implying the biblical prophets and apostles were sent by Satan?
"All of the books of those who are without are altered by them; and they have declined from them, although they were written by the prophets and the apostles"
Did I grossly misinterpret what was said here?
"I reveal my wonders to those who seek them, and in due time my miracles to those who receive them from me. But those who are without are my adversaries, hence they oppose me. Nor do they know that such a course is against their own interests, for might, wealth and riches are in my hands, and I bestow them upon every worthy descendant of Adam. Thus the government of the worlds, the transition of generations, and the changes of their directors are determined by me from the beginning. "
Why would he give all the wealth and might of the world to his staunchest opponents?
He also says the books in the Bible were written by the biblical prophets and apostles but got corrupted by Christians and jews? This is implying the biblical prophets and apostles were sent by Satan?
"All of the books of those who are without are altered by them; and they have declined from them, although they were written by the prophets and the apostles"
Did I grossly misinterpret what was said here?